I need the help of some of you grammarians in the blogosphere. I am a bit lost as to why προεγράφη in Galatians 3.1 is translated as it is in the following versions:

ESV: O foolish Galatians! Who has bewitched you? It was before your eyes that Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed as crucified.

NASB: You foolish Galatians, who has bewitched you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed as crucified?

NET: You foolish Galatians! Who has cast a spell on you? Before your eyes Jesus Christ was vividly portrayed as crucified!

NIV: You foolish Galatians! Who has bewitched you? Before your very eyes Jesus Christ was clearly portrayed as crucified.

I know etymology is usually not a primary factor, but this word should mean something like “previously written”, correct? Elsewhere in the NT it is translated as such. In Eph. 3.3 it is translated things like “I have written” (ESV), “I wrote before” (NASB; NET), and “I have already written” (NIV). In Rom. 15.4, where it is also a Aorist, Passive, Indicative, 3rd person, singular it is translated as “written in former days” (ESV), “written in earlier times” (NASB), “written in former times” (NET), and “written in the past” (NIV). The only none Pauline appearance of the word is Jude 4 where it refers to false teachers being previously or formerly “marked out” or “designated” which seems to closer to the translation theory of Gal. 3.1 (although it is a Perfect, Passive, Participle here).

Is it possible that Gal. 3.1 is some sort of reference to Jesus being portrayed from Scripture? What does Paul mean by being publicly portrayed? I am at loss.