Last week I wrote a post on John 1:18ff. discussing the juxtaposition between Jesus and Moses as regards “seeing” God the Father. One of the questions I asked was the following: “…the author(s) says that Moses gave the Law, but Jesus the Messiah brought grace (ἡ χάρις) and truth (ἡ ἀλήθεια). Does this mean Moses did not bring grace and truth? Is the first part of that combination in need of emphasis, i.e., Moses did bring truth, but not grace?” Another approach might be that Moses brought a different type of grace than Jesus? This thought was first inspired by a tweet from Jon Jordan a few weeks ago. He asked:

https://twitter.com/jonrjordan/status/281913856882769920

In 1:16 the author does say that the community has received “the fullness” (τοῦ πληρώματος) in Christ. Is this fullness the completion of something started by Moses? When it says, χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος, should we read this as “a grace upon grace” (NASB); “one gracious gift after another” (NET); “a grace instead of/in place of a grace”; or something else?

Thoughts?

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