Let me present these tweets from Seth M. Ehorn for your consideration:

When we study the use of the OT in the NT should we consider the context of the composition of the OT passage to matter all that much since the Septuagint (or, Greek Old Testament) is used a majority of the time. For example, when Paul cites Habakkuk 2:4 in Romans 1:16-17 does the Hebrew text of Habakkuk mean all that much to Paul’s argument? Does the context of the composition of Hebrew Habakkuk influence Paul at all? Or should exegetes recognize that authors like Paul are engaging the Septuagint with little thought being given to the Hebrew text?

 

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